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PRMIA 8020 Exam Syllabus Topics:
Topic
Details
Topic 1
Topic 2
Topic 3
Topic 4
PRMIA ORM Certificate - 2023 Update Sample Questions (Q54-Q59):
NEW QUESTION # 54
Compliance departments traditionally provide policy, oversight, and set the standards for monitoring personal dealing. Which control below would assist in implementing such policies?
Answer: D
Explanation:
Definition of DORA
The Digital Operational Resilience Act (DORA) is a regulation by the European Union (EU) aimed at strengthening the digital resilience of financial institutions.
It establishes a regulatory framework for managing information and communication technology (ICT) risks in the financial sector.
Key Objectives of DORA
Ensures that financial institutions can withstand, respond to, and recover from cyber threats and ICT-related disruptions.
Introduces standards for risk management, incident reporting, and third-party ICT risk oversight.
Why Other Answers Are Incorrect
Option
Explanation:
A . Domain for Operational Risk Act.
Incorrect - No such regulation exists under this name.
B . Digital Operational Risk Act.
Incorrect - The official name is Digital Operational Resilience Act (DORA).
C . Daily Operational Resilience Act.
Incorrect - DORA is not focused on daily operations but rather long-term digital resilience.
PRMIA Reference for Verification
PRMIA Risk Governance & Digital Resilience Standards
European Commission's Official DORA Regulation
NEW QUESTION # 55
What are some of the deficiencies associated with bottom-up Key Risk Indicators?
Answer: D
Explanation:
Definition of Bottom-Up Key Risk Indicators (KRIs)
Bottom-up KRIs are generated from operational-level data rather than high-level strategic indicators.
They are useful for monitoring localized risks but may fail to capture broad risk drivers.
Key Deficiencies of Bottom-Up KRIs
Lack of clarity on causal relationships - These indicators may detect risk trends but fail to explain root causes.
Focus on micro-level risks - They may miss systemic or enterprise-wide risk interactions.
Why Answer B is Correct
Bottom-up KRIs may indicate changes in risk levels but lack insight into the underlying causes, leading to reactive rather than proactive risk management.
Why Other Answers Are Incorrect
Option
Explanation:
A . Mandates from a board that are too restrictive to implement.
Incorrect - Board mandates apply to top-down governance, not bottom-up KRIs.
C . Not reported frequently enough.
Incorrect - Reporting frequency is an issue but not the primary deficiency; rather, it's the lack of causal insight.
D . Lack of granularity.
Incorrect - Bottom-up KRIs tend to be highly detailed (granular), making this answer incorrect.
PRMIA Reference for Verification
PRMIA Key Risk Indicator Best Practices
Basel Committee's Risk Measurement and Reporting Framework
NEW QUESTION # 56
In relation to the template for writing policy documents, which one of the following pairings of requirements is correct? A well designed policy will include:
Answer: B
Explanation:
Step 1: Key Elements of a Well-Designed Policy Document
A well-designed policy should include:
Scope - Who the policy applies to.
Exception Handling - How and where exceptions should be requested.
Accountability - Who is responsible for enforcement.
Step 2: Why Option C is Correct
A policy must clearly define exceptions and the process for requesting them.
It should also define areas where the policy does not apply to avoid confusion.
Step 3: Why the Other Options Are Incorrect
Option A ("List of exceptions for board members' families") → Incorrect because policies should apply consistently to all stakeholders.
Option B ("List of acceptable fonts and margin types") → Incorrect because formatting is secondary to content clarity.
Option D ("To whom the policy applies and an additional management report") → Incorrect because policy scope should not include unnecessary reports.
PRMIA Risk Reference Used:
PRMIA Policy Writing Guidelines - Defines policy structure and exception handling.
ISO 19600 Compliance Management Standard - Supports clear, well-documented policies.
Final Conclusion:
A well-designed policy clearly defines exceptions and their handling process, making Option C the correct answer.
NEW QUESTION # 57
What are the objectives of conducting an internal loss investigation?
Answer: D
Explanation:
tep 1: Purpose of Internal Loss Investigations
Internal loss investigations analyze past loss events to identify root causes, improve controls, and enhance risk assessments.
Step 2: Why Option A Is Correct
Root Cause Analysis: Identifying why the loss occurred.
Focus on Remediation: Implementing corrective measures to prevent recurrence.
Scenario Analysis Improvement: Using lessons learned to enhance risk scenario modeling.
Step 3: Why the Other Options Are Incorrect
Option B ("Focus on who caused the issue") → Incorrect because loss investigations are about systemic issues, not assigning blame.
Option C ("Ascertain responsibility for the loss event") → Incorrect because the focus is on process improvements, not individual accountability.
Option D ("Determined by HR on a case-by-case basis") → Incorrect because HR does not dictate risk investigations-risk and compliance functions do.
PRMIA Risk Reference Used:
PRMIA Operational Risk Framework - Emphasizes loss investigations for systemic risk management.
Basel III Risk Governance Standards - Defines loss event analysis as a key risk management tool.
NEW QUESTION # 58
Which of the Basel Accords, published in 2004, introduced operational risk as a risk subjected to a capital charge?
Answer: A
Explanation:
Introduction of Operational Risk in Basel Accords
Basel I (1988) → Focused only on credit risk and market risk; operational risk was not yet included.
Basel II (2004) → Introduced operational risk as a separate category, subject to capital requirements.
Basel III (2010) → Strengthened capital and liquidity requirements but did not introduce operational risk.
Basel IV (2017, still evolving) → Adjusts Basel III reforms but does not introduce operational risk as a new category.
Why Answer B is Correct
Basel II (2004) was the first to introduce operational risk as a risk requiring a capital charge.
Why Other Answers Are Incorrect
Option
Explanation:
A . Basel I
Incorrect - Basel I focused on credit risk and market risk, with no capital requirements for operational risk.
C . Basel III
Incorrect - Basel III strengthened Basel II but did not introduce operational risk.
D . Basel IV
Incorrect - Basel IV refines Basel III but does not introduce operational risk as a new capital charge.
PRMIA Reference for Verification
Basel II (2004) Operational Risk Framework
PRMIA Operational Risk Management Guidelines
NEW QUESTION # 59
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